Throughout the preceding posts in this ongoing discussion, I have been suspending my disbelief just enough to allow for the authenticity of at least some core of the Pauline corpus, just as F.C. Baur had, when in fact I have come to view the ideas of the Dutch Radical school as generally correct. While some representatives of this proto-mythicist group would eventually muster the temerity to suggest that the Jesus story is probably almost entirely mythical in both form and function, the bulk of their fame (or infamy) came from their expositions on and critiques of the nature of the pauline epistles, which they (rightly) saw as a product of turn-of-the-century tensions between the emerging ecclesiastical institution and a rather more esoteric "paulinism" that resisted its authority. I am especially persuaded by what I've read from W.C. Van Manen to at least take seriously the probability that these documents that have served as the very cornerstone of such an ancient tradition which makes claims to the historicity of not a few crucial events having taken place at a certain time at a certain place, are essentially just as spurious as those that are similarly attributed to Peter, to James, or to Jude.
(No impartial scholar thinks these letters are authentic.)
(No impartial scholar thinks these letters are authentic.)
So we have two sources of information regarding Christianity's birth and early formative period: the Acts of the Apostles and the pauline epistles. The historical reliability of the Acts has been the focus of much scholarship in the last century, especially as contrasted with the epistles, which at times contradict its outlined narrative. My own opinion is that Acts is likely a very deliberate attempt to synthesize the two hitherto irreconcilable rival camps into a resultant unified faith. I follow David Trobisch on this. Moreover, I follow John Knox and Joseph Tyson in their suggestion that the Acts was penned essentially an an anti-marcionite reaction. I will return to this idea later. For now, if this is so, and if we add to this mix the Dutch radical idea that the entire Pauline corpus is spurious, then we have to face a sobering possibility that we have no primary sources regarding pre-Jewish-Revolt Christianity. This is so significant a paradigm-shift that it merits repetition and highlighting:
We have no primary sources regarding pre-Jewish-Revolt Christianity.
We have no primary sources regarding pre-Jewish-Revolt Christianity.
Gloss that over at your own risk (or at your own benefit, as the case might be).
At any rate, for the sake of engaging Greg Boyd on his own playing field, I have been allowing for their authenticity because even if we downplay the many discrepancies and contradictions between the letters of Paul and the Acts of the Apostles, even if we just read them at face value, bracketing our higher-critical mind momentarily, it is pretty hard to elude the fact that Paul's intended audiences are markedly gentile.
The obviousness of this observation troubles me. I must confess that the fact that the Boyd objections, based as they are on such a demonstrably false premise, in retrospect, could have seemed like a compelling argument to me when I first heard him, now embarrasses me somewhat. There's something to be learned from every experience, though, and this one led me to a profound realization. That I fell for it at all, even for a moment, is indicative of a strange kind of cultural inertia that apparently no one is immune to.
Why is it that people tend to hold on to certain prescribed ideas about a thing even when evidence to the contrary is right in front of them? If a skeptic like me can sometimes fall prey to this kind of rehearsed irrelevant sidetracking, it's no wonder that the business of apologetics prospers like it does, sustained as it is by the general population's lack of familiarity with the texts. All our lives we in the west have heard the story of Jesus, even those of us whose parents weren't particularly religious. Just as it's not an axiom of faith to "know" that Jesus existed, it is not an axiom of faith to "know" that the early Christians were Jews. It is a part of the background noise in our civilization which, because we have no use for thinking about it outside of churchly settings, we don't pay any mind to. It's simply part of the social matrix that resulted from our peculiar historical inheritance, even though our culture is now primarily secular (functionally, at least). It seldom occurs to anyone, even skeptics, to question details such as a Bethlehem birth of Jesus, some kind of Galilean healing streak, the essential Jewishness of the authors and their readers, or his execution by Roman authorities at the instigation of the Jewish authorities. We take all these things for granted without too much consideration.
An illustrative example: I gave up the habit of watching television in 1991. Despite this fact, I can name and describe to some degree all of the four main characters in the Seinfeld television program (and probably a few of the supporting characters too) even though I spent the nineties completely television-free. When something is so pervasive, so ubiquitous in the cultural landscape, it tends to seep peripherally into your consciousness whether we care about that thing or not. Likewise, the basic outline of the Jesus legend is burned into our cultural retina, so to speak, even if we are not Christian. It is part of the cultural identity of even those who are not initiates into the religion. Being able to readily recall certain generalities about the Jesus story should not be mistaken for "knowing" they are true, however, particularly when the "remembered" bits don't match what the texts actually say.
So why is it so ingrained in us that the early Christians, Paul's communities of converts, were essentially Jews, when the epistles themselves are so obviously written to gentile audiences? Actually, it's not that hard to see why. It is because these epistles contain within them so many references and citations from the Hebrew scriptures, that we fail to see the forest for these trees being in the way. Yes, the character of Paul is infatuated with the Jewish Bible. Whatever incarnation he imagines for Jesus (it's notoriously hard to tell what he means), for him, it is all "according to the scriptures." We therefore make the mistake of interpreting this use of Jewish symbolism as though these addressed communities were Jewish, but we've already seen that this is not so. Clearly, it is "Paul" who uses the symbols and the rhetoric, not the communities he addresses.
Moreover, the symbolism and the rhetoric are problematic in themselves. As I have already mentioned1, some scholars have argued against the authenticity of Paul's self-proclaimed pharisaism. This view was encapsulated concisely by C. G. Montefiore when he wrote :
"Either this man was never a Rabbinic Jew at all, or he has quite forgotten what Rabbinic Judaism was and is. … [on the other hand] … The Jesus of the Synoptic Gospels was a critic and pathologist of Judaism. His criticisms are real: they are flesh and blood.... But the author of the Epistle to the Romans fights, for the most part, in the air" 2
It is not enough to proclaim oneself a pharisee and to quote from the Hebrew Bible and engage in midrashic affectations. If it was, then many of the modern fringe religious groups (Jews for Jesus, Rastafarians, Mormons, Black Zionists) that lay claim to being the genuine inheritors of the tradition would have more of a legitimate basis to claim such a title than they actually do. Historical research, the science of genetics, and plain common sense all give the lie to such claims. To one who would ask why Paul would "lie" about such a thing, I would respond by asking them why Joseph Smith would "lie" about such a thing. Delusional people aren't necessarily "lying," they are simply delusional. I'm sure that in his own mind Paul was quite the experienced Jew of Jews. However, his rhetoric just doesn't match his claim to such a pedigree.
Those who would make use of any argument resembling the Boyd objections against mythicism that I outlined in part 2 of this series are holding on to an outmoded and demonstrably false premise. This includes Boyd, James White, William Craig, and many others. I have learned to understand a bit of why they do—conditioned habits are a real bitch to break—but such a stance is ultimately, demonstrably, indefensible. One simply cannot appeal to Paul when asserting the "thorough" Jewishness of the early Christians.
I think this is also the case with the rest of the New Testament writings, as I hope to show in future posts.
for now . . . . .
Ó
- - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - - -
1 — Hyam Maccoby's The Mythmaker
2 — Jewish Quarterly Review 13 [1901], pp. 167, 205-6




I think you can more easily deny that Paul was a Christian than that he was Jewish. He doesn't use the former term, whereas he is very clearly concerned with Jewish identity, Jewish Scriptures, even when arguing for including Gentiles among Abraham's descendents.
ReplyDeleteWe now have a wider array of sources from the Judaism of that period than were available a century ago, and thus can avoid the error of treating later Rabbinic Judaism's texts as though they give us an accurate depiction of what Judaism could be in the first century.
I'm not sure if you saw the discussion on Tom Verenna's blog about just this issue but I wish I had read this piece at that time. This is a very thorough explanation of the situation and combined with your previous posts makes a strong case for a gentile origin to the Pauline form of Christianity (which has always made quite a bit of sense to me).
ReplyDeleteWhat is your understanding of the relationship between the destruction of Jerusalem under Hadrian and the formation of Christianity?
Hi James;
ReplyDeletePaul's "Jewishness" is tangential to my primary argument, which is that the epistles do not support any appeal of the kind that Boyd puts forth regarding the "thorough Jewishness" of the early Christian converts.
That said, if you can empirically demonstrate to me that the pauline corpus dates to the fifth and sixth decade of the first century C.E., without relying merely on "tradition," I will gladly concede to your objection above. You need to make both a positive argument and a negative one (i.e. refute the arguments of the Dutch Radicals regarding their late dating) to accomplish this. Good luck.
As for your second point, to claim a "wider array of sources" when all you really mean is the Khirbet Qumran library is a bit of hyperbole.
Regardless, my question to you is this: In what way is the "thorough Jewishness" of Paul reinforced by the texts in the DSS? Be specific. For example, is there some parallel anywhere in the DSS to Paul's midrashic interpretation of Genesis 15 and Genesis 17 (in Galatians)? Is there a parallel to his allegory relegating the Jews as stemming from Hagar as opposed to Sarah? (granted, there are no Christian references in the DSS, but this allegory could have easily been applied to the Temple establishment that they so reviled. No?) It is not enough to say that we know more about Judaism now than we did a hundred years ago (btw, I would not disagree with this assumption). You must demonstrate that Paul's understanding was normative in some way.
Ó
Hi Evan;
ReplyDeleteThank you.
and …
No. I had not read Verenna's piece. I do occasionally read his blog and I think he is a level headed guy with genuine insight, though.
It is my understanding that the destruction of Jerusalem began under Vespasian and was finished by Titus.
At any rate, I have thought about the correlation you pose at some length and I will probably write something on this too. Why did gentiles usurp the mantle of "Judaism" once the established structure was dismantled? It's a very good question. I think it has something to do with the quest for legitimacy like that described in the pauline epistles. Do you have some ideas on this? I'd like to hear them if you do.
Ó
Quixie you are correct that Jerusalem was leveled after the first Jewish war by Vespasian and Titus, but it was then re-inhabited at the time of Hadrian, and was used as the capital of Judea during the Bar Kochba revolt. After that revolt, Hadrian had it dismantled and banished the Jews, rebuilding a city named Aelia Capitolina in its stead.
ReplyDeleteIt seems to me that most of the texts of the Pauline epistles make more sense if they are understood as being written subsequent to this event. Romans 11 seems to make much more sense when seen in light of the Bar Kochba revolt, for example.
In addition, "Pauline" Christianity itself is very keen to show that one can be a devotee of the "Old Testament" by believing in the "New Testament" (see 2 Cor 3 KJV).
Evan:
ReplyDeleteThanks for clarifying. When I saw the words "destruction of Jerusalem" I guess I reflexively thought of the first Jewish War. Sorry.
I think I read something in Detering that sounded like what you are saying here. Interesting idea. It would mean that the epistles would be roughly synchronous with GJohn(or even followed it?).
Lemme ruminate on that a bit.
Ó
Blogger just lost a comment I wrote. The gist of it was that the Dead Sea Scrolls, as well as other texts that may not have been lost but were certainly neglected by European scholars, illustrate that Paul, however distinctive his conclusions, was using Jewish methods of interpretation. The rabbinic corpus is full of divergent viewpoints, but all part of a Jewish conversation based on shared Scriptures and methods of interpretation.
ReplyDeleteI also asked whether you are of that particular stance that views Paul's letters as products of Marcionism. If so, I must say that these epistles show such interest in the Jewish Scriptures, and are concerned with the incorporation of Gentiles into the family of Abraham, in a way that makes that seem rather implausible. Imagining an originally Gentile Christianity trying to forge Jewish roots for itself in a post-Bar Kochba era doesn't seem to make as much historical sense. You may feel the same way, for all I know (these were views expressed recently by another commenter who was a fan of the Dutch Radicals). But I thought I should ask, just to clarify what your view of these matters is. And wish I had time and memory adequate to reconstructing my original comment in its entirety. :(
James;
ReplyDeleteDoes your persistence in focusing on Paul's Jewishism mean that you accept my main point throughout these posts?
McG: — "was using Jewish methods of interpretation" …
… Yeah, to convince gentile god-fearers (or fiery pentecostal cultists, or gnostics, or proto-Catholic — all represented in Paul's audience in these texts) that they were entitled to some part of Abraham's bossom … that Torah was no longer an obstacle to their desire to adopt the ethical Jewish god … that they were already included (by grace) in G-sh's historio-soteriological schemes …
Does this make sense?
I don't think the epistles originated with Marcion. They preceded him. By how long, no one can really say. I do think the Acts is a response to Marcion, though, and I think that marcionism likely informs much of GMark (and the other two by default) as well. Polycarp hated Marcion because in some of the eastern provinces marcionism was the first form of Christianity that people had ever seen (this was Walter Bauer's conclusion, and I think it is irrefutable). Circling the wagons, Polycarp, who likely had some hand in the editorial process which resulted in the Acts (and the NT in general), informs us elsewhere that Marcion, the "first-born of Satan," has cut sections out of his beloved Paul. There are reasons to think that Marcion's shorter versions of these texts are the original, however. At the very least, we probably should not take the testimony of a polemic fanatic as a historical certainty. This is neither here nor there for the preceding discussion, though, but I hope it answers your curiosity.
Ó
Dr. McGrath, I'm curious if there are extant rabbinic discussions that took place in the Greek language in the second temple period or in the late first or second centuries CE.
ReplyDeleteOnly if you count Paul's letter. :-)
ReplyDeleteAre you aware of any extant texts besides the epistles in which the author refers to himself as being of the tribe of Benjamin that date from the second temple period through the second century CE?
ReplyDeleteWhy does it have to be an author mentioning himself? Without that arbitrary stipulation, presumably 2 Maccabees 3:4 will do?
ReplyDeleteEvan;
ReplyDeleteI think some other, more crucial questions might be:
Are there any extant texts from the Judaism of the period which purport to use midrash to announce that Judaism has been essentially superseded and is now obsolete?
Are there any examples of the Temple establishment ever having violently persecuted those who disagreed with it theologically?
Another that is not related to the epistles, per çe:
Given that the literary record shows that the establishment, rather than hand over its people to a conquering power that demanded them (for whatever crime said subject had committed), would instead consistently do its best to protect and harbor them and attempt to deal justice "in the house," … what made Jesus' case so special that they decided to buck this long tradition? Are there examples of this ever having happened before?
The answer to all three is, of course, "not unless you count Paul's letters" (the gospels in the third case).
Ó
Dr. McGrath,
ReplyDeleteMy understanding (I am not an expert in this area) is that 2 Maccabees 3:4 is not a reference to the tribe of Benjamin as understood by that term prior to the Assyrian and Babylonian conquests.
From the Jewish Encyclopedia:
"On the other hand, it is hardly admissible that Menelaus and Lysimachus should have been allowed to officiate as high priests if they were descendants of the tribe of Benjamin, as II Macc. iii. 4 (compare iv. 23, 29) seems to indicate; it is much more probable that the name "Benjamin" in this place is due to a copyist's error, and the passage should read: "Simon was of the [priestly] tribe of Miniamin," if "Bilgah" is not the proper reading."
Quixie,
Your questions are indeed more crucial. I just find that with these things so often the devil is in the details, and investigation usually leads to very little that is other than "received wisdom".
I'm still trying to figure out why it's such a historical certainty that Jesus didn't have an identical twin, but so historically certain that he had a brother named James.
Evan, it is probably that Jewish belief that resulted in the variant readings. But not long after this, we find a dynasty of priest-kings establishing itself which could claim descent neither from Aaron nor from David.
ReplyDeleteI have some doubts that Paul was as Jewish as he claimed. Or, at the least, was lying about his Rabbinic (Pharisee) training.
ReplyDeleteIn Romans 10, Paul makes the following argument:
9 That if you confess with your mouth, "Jesus is Lord," and believe in your heart that God raised him from the dead, you will be saved.
10 For it is with your heart that you believe and are justified, and it is with your mouth that you confess and are saved.
11 As the Scripture says, "Anyone who trusts in him will never be put to shame." (Isaiah 28:16)
12 For there is no difference between Jew and Gentile—the same Lord is Lord of all and richly blesses all who call on him,
13 for, "Everyone who calls on the name of the Lord will be saved." (Joel 2:32)
Paul's argument here implies that the "name of the lord" that does the saving in Joel 2.32 is "Jesus". However, the entire book of Joel never once uses the word "lord", at least in Hebrew. All instances are actually HaShem: YHWH. In the LXX, however, YHWH is replaced with the word "lord" to avoid pronouncing the Name out loud.
So Paul must have been reading from a Greek version of Joel 2, and must not have been very well versed (if at all) in Hebrew. That Paul was a Hellenized Jew isn't much of a controversy, but I'm not sure why no one has put two and two together.
It's my understanding that the Pharisees were trained in Hebrew, and that Pharisaism was a distinctly Judean (i.e. non-diaspora) phenomenon. It's only after the 1st Jewish-Roman war that the Pharisees begin branching out, cementing Rabbinic (Pharisee) Judaism as the norm. This post 70 CE branching out of the Pharisees is why the Synoptic gospels have a caricature of them popping up everywhere Jesus goes before he even gets to Jerusalem. They are describing post 70 CE conflicts between nascent Christians and Jews retrojected to the time period of Jesus.
Anyway, I'm not sure any Pharisee would have seen the Torah as a curse (Gal 3.10,13), since Pharisaism was known for its liberal interpretation of the Torah due to the Oral Torah, or the "traditions of their fathers" (Josephus, Antiquities 13.10.6).
Lastly, there's the apocryphal Ebionite tale about Paul. How he was originally converted to Judaism to marry a priest's daughter and then regretted his decision (or circumcision) once she turned down his advances.
So those are my suspicions about Paul's own Jewishness. Who knows, maybe he lied about his Jewishness to be "all things to all men".
Quintón;
ReplyDeleteTes, yes, and yes. All valid points. Those are the kinds of indiscrepancies that Maccoby highlights.
As you can see from these recent posts about the Pauline communities, I'm finding it increasingly puzzling that people just don't see the obvious. I think cultural and academic entropy might be bigger factors in our perception than we realize.
Ó